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nyart
Senior Member

USA
679 Posts

Posted - Aug 10 2017 :  23:10:04  Show Profile  Reply with Quote
I went to the Yale Center for British Art this past weekend. Looking at paintings going back to Medieval time, there are no visible brush marks on the paintings. How did the artists achieve this?

Regards,
nyart

Vietato
Gold Member

Denmark
1691 Posts

Posted - Aug 11 2017 :  05:32:55  Show Profile  Reply with Quote
I believe that you will always be able to see that certain spots are applied by a brush, but other than that it's a combination of smooth brushes and thin layers of paint and varnish.

Watch this informative video about Rembrandt's technique for instance:https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=S0GEgDGmdNo

Regards,
Vietato

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nyart
Senior Member

USA
679 Posts

Posted - Aug 12 2017 :  08:24:51  Show Profile  Reply with Quote
Thanks Vietato. The video really explains the technique used; And I believe the layers of varnish help smooth the brush marks. Fantastic!

Kind regards,
nyart
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Merray
Gold Member

Canada
1311 Posts

Posted - Aug 12 2017 :  14:09:43  Show Profile  Reply with Quote
Perhaps the only other element to add to this is the use of thin/liquid paint (lots of solvent) as oppose to impasto painting where thick/dry paint is used.

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nyart
Senior Member

USA
679 Posts

Posted - Aug 14 2017 :  20:57:01  Show Profile  Reply with Quote
What kind of bristle was used for the brushes? Maybe that played a role also.
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Merray
Gold Member

Canada
1311 Posts

Posted - Aug 14 2017 :  22:01:32  Show Profile  Reply with Quote
Yes, as Vietato mentioned above "smooth brushes" used - meaning with soft and fine bristle.

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